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[High Quality Materials] Latest LPI 117-201 Exam Questions And Youtube Free Update

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following is a side effect of extensive usage of swap space?
A. The root filesystem may become full because swap space is always located on the system root partition.
B. The overall system performance may degrade because of heavy hard disk use and memory reorganization.
C. Since processes always exist completely in either RAM or swap, regular RAM may become unused if the kernel does not move processes back from the swap space to memory.
D. The memory may become fragmented and slow down the access to memory pages. However, this can be kept to a minimum by the regular use of memfrag -d.
E. Applications need to restart because their virtual memory addresses change to reflect memory relocation to the swap address area.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
In capacity planning exercises, which tools assist in listing and identifying processes of interest? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. acpid
B. lsof
C. pstree
D. telinit
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
In the below example output, which columns detail the percent of time the CPU spent running non-kernel code and the percent of time the CPU spent running kernel code? (Choose TWO correct answers.) 117-201 exam
# vmstat 1 100
procs ———–memory———- —swap– —–io—- –system– —-cpu—-
r b swpd free buff cache si so bi bo in cs us sy id wa
0 0 0 282120 134108 5797012 0 0 0 2 0 0 0 0 100 0
0 0 0 282120 134108 5797012 0 0 0 0 1007 359 0 0 100 0
0 0 0 282120 134108 5797012 0 0 0 0 1117 577 0 0 100 0
0 0 0 282120 134108 5797012 0 0 0 0 1007 366 0 0 100 0
A. id
B. us
C. wa
D. sy
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 4
In this example output, which descriptions match the purpose of the free, buff and cache columns? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
# vmstat 1 100
procs ———–memory———- —swap– —–io—- –system– —-cpu—-
r b swpd free buff cache si so bi bo in cs us sy id wa
0 0 0 282120 134108 5797012 0 0 0 2 0 0 0 0 100 0
0 0 0 282120 134108 5797012 0 0 0 0 1007 359 0 0 100 0
0 0 0 282120 134108 5797012 0 0 0 0 1117 577 0 0 100 0
0 0 0 282120 134108 5797012 0 0 0 0 1007 366 0 0 100 0
A. Used swap space
B. RAM available for filesystem buffers
C. Available free RAM
D. RAM used for buffers
E. RAM used for filesystem cache
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 5
Which of the following tools are used to measure memory usage? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. mpstat
B. pstree
C. sar
D. top
E. vmstat
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 6
In the following output, what percentage of time was the CPU waiting for pending I/O?
# vmstat 1 100
procs ———–memory———- —swap– —–io—- –system– —-cpu—-
r b swpd free buff cache si so bi bo in cs us sy id wa
0 0 0 282120 134108 5797012 0 0 0 2 0 0 0 0 100 0
0 0 0 282120 134108 5797012 0 0 0 0 1007 359 0 0 100 0
0 0 0 282120 134108 5797012 0 0 0 0 1117 577 0 0 100 0
0 0 0 282120 134108 5797012 0 0 0 0 1007 366 0 0 100 0
A. 0
B. 100
C. 35.9
D. 57.7
E. 36.6
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
In the following output, what is the 5 minute load average for the system?
# uptime
12:10:05 up 18 days, 19:00, 2 users, load averagE. 0.47, 24.71, 35.31
A. 0.47
B. 24.71
C. 35.31
D. There is no 5 minute interval. It is some value between 0.47 and 24.71.
E. There is no 5 minute interval. It is some value between 24.71 and 35.31.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
In the following output from top, which processes contribute to the percentage of time that the CPU spends in the state of wa?
Tasks: 193 total, 1 running, 190 sleeping, 2 stopped, 0 zombie
Cpu(s): 0.5%us, 0.3%sy, 0.0%ni, 98.2%id, 1.0%wa, 0.0%hi, 0.0%si, 0.0%st
A. Processes waiting for user interaction.
B. Processes that were already closed and are waiting to be launched again.
C. Processes that have not been scheduled yet because they haven’t been fully loaded into RAM or are in swap.
D. Processes waiting for IO operations to complete.
Correct Answer: D

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Latest Cisco 350-018 Dumps Exam Practice Questions Update Free Try

Question No : 1
Which signature engine is used to create a custom IPS signature on a Cisco 350-018 dumps IPS appliance that triggers when a vulnerable web application identified by the “/runscript.php” URI is run?
A. AIC HTTP
B. Service HTTP
C. String TCP
D. Atomic IP
E. META
F. Multi-String
Answer: B

Question No : 2
Which three statements about NetFlow version 9 are correct? (Choose three.)
A. It is backward-compatible with versions 8 and 5.
B. Version 9 is dependent on the underlying transport; only UDP is supported.
C. A version 9 export packet consists of a packet header and flow sets.
D. Generating and maintaining valid template flow sets requires additional processing.
E. NetFlow version 9 does not access the NetFlow cache entry directly.
Answer: C,D,E
350-018
Question No : 3
Which port or ports are used for the 350-018 vce FTP data channel in passive mode?
A. random TCP ports
B. TCP port 21 on the server side
C. TCP port 21 on the client side
D. TCP port 20 on the server side
E. TCP port 20 on the client side
Answer: A

Question No : 4
What is the purpose of the 350-018 pdf BGP TTL security check?
A. The BGP TTL security check is used for iBGP session.
B. The BGP TTL security check protects against CPU utilization-based attacks.
C. The BGP TTL security check checks for a TTL value in packet header of less than or equal to for successful peering.
D. The BGP TTL security check authenticates a peer.
E. The BGP TTL security check protects against routing table corruption.
Answer: B

Question No : 5
Which two statements about Network Edge Authentication Technology (NEAT) are true? (Choose two.)
A. It can be configured on both access ports and trunk ports.
B. It allows you to configure redundant links between authenticator and supplicant switches
C. It can be configured on both access ports and EtherChannel ports.
D. It supports port-based authentication on the authenticator switch.
E. It conflicts with auto-configuration
F. It requires a standard ACL on the switch port.
Answer: A,D

Question No : 6
In Cisco Wireless LAN Controller (WLC) , which web policy enables failed Layer 2 authentication to 350-018 exam fall back to WebAuth authentication with a user name and password ?
A. Splash Page Web Redirect
B. B. Passthough
C. C.On MAC Filter Failure
D. D. Authentcaiton
E. E.Conditional Web Redirect
Answer: C

Question No : 7
Which two options correctly describe Remote Triggered Black Hole 350-018 Filtering (RFC 5635)? (Choose two.)
A. RTBH destination based filtering can drop traffic destined to a host based on triggered entries in the FIB.
B. RTBH source based filtering will drop traffic from a source destined to a host based on triggered entries in the RIB
C. Loose uRPF must be used in conjunction with RTBH destination based filtering
D. Strict uRPF must be used in conjunction with RTBH source based filtering
E. RTBH uses a discard route on the edge devices of the network and a route server to send triggered route updates
F. When setting the BGP community attribute in a route-map for RTBH use the no-export community unless BGP confederations are used then use local-as to advertise to sub-as confederations
Answer: A,E

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Download Free Cisco 600-460 Exam Practice Questions And Youtube

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QUESTION 1
You are CCNA VOICE associate in XXXX.com. You need configure a voice port that will allow the gateway to terminate 23 or 30 circuits from the PSTN. Which type of voice port you will configure?
A. BRI
B. FXS
C. PRI T1/E1
D. E&M
Answer: C

600-460

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is selected first for 600-460 an incoming dial peer?
A. Answer-address
B. incoming called-number
C. destination-pattern
D. pots port
Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Power over Ethernet (PoE) is the ability for the LAN switching infrastructure to provide power over a copper Ethernet cable to an endpoint (Powered Device). This capability, once referred to as “inline power”, was originally developed and first delivered by Cisco in 2000 to support the emerging IP Telephony deployments. IP Telephones, like desktop PBX phones, need power for their operation and Power over Ethernet enables scalable and manageable power delivery and simplifies deployments of IP Telephony.
As Wireless networking emerged, Power over Ethernet was also used to power these devices to allow for deployments in 600-460 dumps locations where local power access did not exist. While IP telephones and wireless access points are the most intuitive uses for PoE, the advent of 802.3af standardization of PoE opens the door to a new generation of networked-attached devices such as video cameras, point-of-sale devices, security access control (card scanners), building automation and industrial automation just to name a few.
When a Cisco switch supply PoE to an IP phone?
A. whenever switch and IP phone are Cisco products.
B. when Cisco switch supports prestandard PoE and the IP phone supports 802.3af.
C. when Cisco switch and IP phone both support a common PoE method.
D. Only when both the switch and IP phone use 802.3af PoE.
Answer: C

QUESTION 4
What is the default VTP mode on Cisco switches?
A. Master
B. Client
C. Backup
D. Server
Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which Cisco 600-460 vce Unified Communications layer is the call processing layer?
A. Layer A including video,communications client, software-based phones, IP Phone
B. Layer B including Voice mail,Presence,Contact Center
C. Layer C including Cisco Unified Communications manger,Directory Server.
D. Layer D including Gateway, Router, Switch.
Answer: C

QUESTION 6
What are the three VTP modes on Cisco switches?
A. Master
B. Client
C. Server
D. Transparent
Answer: BCD

QUESTION 7
A SIP Trunk is a logical connection between an IP PBX and a Service Provider’s application servers that allows voice over IP traffic to be exchanged between the two. When a call is placed from an internal phone to 600-460 pdf an external number, the PBX sends the necessary information to the SIP Trunk provider who establishes the call to the dialed number and acts as an intermediary for the call. All signaling and voice traffic between the PBX and the provider is exchanged using SIP and RTP protocol packets over the IP network. Which two statements about SIP trunk are true?
A. A SIP trunk configuration is mandatory for a UC500 device.
B. A SIP trunk is needed for internet access
C. A SIP trunk is needed only for voice if you are planning on using VoIP through a service provider.
D. A SIP trunk is not supported in a keyswitch configuration.
Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
You are CCNA VOICE associate in XXXX.com. One user from your company wants to use a signaling protocol on the 600-460 voice gateways that require registration with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
Which protocol should you suggest to him?
A. SIP
B. Frame relay
C. SRTP
D. MGCP
Answer: D

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Update Free Microsoft 98-364 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Youtube

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Vendor: Microsoft
Exam Code: 98-364
Exam Name: Microsoft Database Fundamentals
Version: Demo

98-364

QUESTION 1
The terms “bitmap,” “b-tree,” and “hash” refer to which type of database structure?
A. View
B. Function
C. Index
D. Stored procedure
E. Trigger
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
One reason to 98-364 add an index is to:
A. Decrease storage space.
B. Increase database security.
C. Improve performance of select statements.
D. Improve performance of insert statements.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You have a table that contains the following data.
You break the table into the following two tables.
This process is referred to as:
A. defragmentation
B. normalization
C. fragmentation
D. denormalization
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You have a table that 98-364 exam contains the following data.
Which database term is used to describe the relationship between ProductID and ProductCategory?
A. Cohort
B. Relationally dependent
C. Deterministic
D. Functionally dependent
E. Compositional
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which key uniquely identifies a row in a table?
A. foreiqn
B. primary
C. local
D. superkey
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which statement creates a 98-364 composite key?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
At 3:00 P.M. (1500 hours), you create a backup of your database. At 4:00 P.M. (1600 hours), you create a table named Customer and import data into the 98-364 table. At 5:00 P.M. (1700 hours), your server fails. You run a script to apply only the 3:00 P.M. backup to your database. What is the result of the script?
A. The Customer table no longer exists.
B. The Customer table is unaffected.
C. The Customer table exists but has no data.
D. The script fails.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
In which situation do you need to perform a restore on a database?
A. when data becomes corrupted in the database
B. when you need to roll back a transaction
C. when you encounter an error in your application
D. when data needs to be deleted from the database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which command should you use to give a user permission to read the 98-364 data in a table?
A. ALLOW SELECT
B. LET READ
C. PERMIT READ
D. GRANT SELECT
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
You need to enable a new employee to authenticate to your database. Which command should you use?
A. ALLOW USER
B. CREATE USER
C. ADD USER
D. INSERT USER
E. ALTER USER
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which keyword can be used in a create table statement?
A. ORDER BY
B. DISTINCT
C. GROUP BY
D. UNIQUE
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
You need to store product quantities, and you want to 98-364 vce minimize the amount of storage space that is used. Which data type should you use?
A. INTEGER
B. DOUBLE
C. COUNT
D. FLOAT
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which statement will result in the creation of an index?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
You have the following table definition:
CREATE TABLE Road (RoadID INTEGER NOT NULL, Distance INTEGER NOT NULL)
The Road table contains the following data:
You execute the 98-364 following statement: INSERT INTO Road VALUES (1234, 36) What is the result?
A. an error stating that NULL values are not allowed
B. a new row in the table
C. an error stating that duplicate IDs are not allowed
D. a syntax error
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
You need to store product names that vary from three to 30 characters. You also need to minimize the amount of storage space that is used.
Which data type should you use?
A. VARCHAR (3, 30)
B. CHAR (3, 30)
C. VARCHAR (30)
D. CHAR (30)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
One reason to 98-364 create a stored procedure is to:
A. Improve performance.
B. Minimize storage space.
C. Bypass case sensitivity requirements.
D. Give the user control of the query logic.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which permission does a user need in order to run a stored procedure?
A. EXECUTE
B. ALLOW
C. CALL
D. RUN
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
You have a table named Product. You create a view that includes all the products from the Product table that are in the 98-364 Furniture category.
You execute a statement on the Product table that deletes all the products in the Furniture category.
After you execute the statement, the result set of the view is:
A. Empty
B. Deleted
C. Unchanged
D. Archived
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
In SQL, an insert statement is used to add a:
A. User to a database.
B. Row of data to a table.
C. Table to a database.
D. Column to a table definition.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
You have two tables. Each table 98-364 pdf has three rows.
How many rows will be included in the Cartesian product of these two tables?
A. 0
B. 3
C. 6
D. 9
Correct Answer: D

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100% Pass EMC E20-690 Exam With Best E20-690 PDF Study Guide

Passing the EMC E20-690 exam has never been faster or easier, now with actual questions and answers, without the messy E20-690 braindumps that are frequently incorrect. ActualTests Unlimited Access Exams are not only the E20-690 exam cheaper way to pass without resorting to E20-690 dumps, but at only $149.00 you get access to ALL of the exams from every certification vendor.

This is more than a EMC E20-690 practice exam, this is a compilation of the actual questions and answers from the VNX Solutions Specialist Exam for Platform Engineers test. Where our competitor’s products provide a basic E20-690 practice test to prepare you for what may appear on the exam and prepare you for surprises, the ActualTest E20-690 exam questions are complete, comprehensive and guarantees to prepare you for your EMC exam.

E20-690

QUESTION 1
Which VNX enclosures use a common motherboard architecture?
A. DME and SPE
B. DPE and SPE
C. DPE and 25-drive DAE
D. Control Station and DME
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What protocols does the E20-690 Data Mover support?
A. CIFS, NFS, pNFS and MPFS
B. CIFS, pNFS, and SCSI
C. MPFS, HTTP, FTP, and NFS
D. NFS, FC, and CIFS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What are the minimum components required to configure a VNX5500 for Block storage system?
A. Control Station, SP, DAE
B. Control Station, SP, DME
C. SP, DME, DAE
D. SPS, SPE, DAE
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which kind of back-end bus connectivity is supported on E20-690 dumps a VNX storage system?
A. 4 lane 6 Gb/s SAS
B. 4 lane 6 Gb/s FC
C. 2 lane 6 Gb/s SAS
D. 2 lane 6 Gb/s FC
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
How are SAS bus hardware IDs configured for the E20-690 VNX enclosures?
A. Automatically assigned during system boot process
B. Assigned by the address switch located on each enclosure
C. Assigned by Unisphere Service Manager
D. Assigned by the Backend Bus Reset Wizard in Unisphere
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
A customer asks your help in determining which types of DPE and disk drives are supported in a VNX storage system. How would you respond?
A. 2U DPE with either fifteen 2.5″ SAS or twenty-five 3.5″ EFD disk drives
B. 3U DPE with either fifteen 3.5″ EFD, SAS or twenty-five 2.5″ SAS disk drives
C. 4U DPE with either fifteen 3.5″ FC, EFD or twenty-five .2.5″ SAS disk drives
D. 3U DPE with either fifteen 2.5″ EFD, FC or twenty-five 2.5″ EFD disk drives
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. Where is DM 3 located?
A. Location 6
B. Location 5
C. Location 7
D. Location 10
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
What IP address is assigned to the E20-690 vce eth2 interface on a Control Station?
A. IP address for the B management network
B. IP address for the A management network
C. Public IP address for the customer’s network
D. IP address for the peer Control Station
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What IP address is assigned to the eth3 interface on a Control Station?
A. IP address for the A management network
B. IP address for the B management network
C. Public IP address for the customer’s network
D. IP address for the peer Control Station
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
Which component is located in location 3?
A. CS 1
B. CS 0
C. DAE 0
D. DAE 1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
Which DAE and components E20-690 pdf does cable 1 connect?
A. SP A slot 0 port 1 to the SAS expander on DAE 0 LCC A
B. SP A slot 0 port 0 to the SAS expander on DAE 1 LCC A
C. SP B slot 0 port 0 to the SAS expander on DAE 1 LCC B
D. SP B slot 0 port 1 to the SAS expander on DAE 0 LCC B
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.
Which DAE and E20-690 components does cable 2 connect?
A. SP A slot 0 port 0 to the SAS expander on DAE 1 LCC A
B. SP B slot 0 port 1 to the SAS expander on DAE 0 LCC B
C. SP B slot 0 port 0 to the SAS expander on DAE 1 LCC B
D. SP A slot 0 port 1 to the SAS expander on DAE 0 LCC A
Correct Answer: B

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100% Pass Ensure Cisco 300-115 Real Exam For Free

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 300-115 exam
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks (SWITCH v2.0)
Version: Demo

300-115

QUESTION 1
What is the default interval at which Cisco 300-115 devices send Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements?
A. 30 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 120 seconds
D. 300 seconds
Correct Answer: B Explanation

Explanation: Cisco Discovery Protocol is a Layer 2, media-independent, and network-independent protocol that networking applications use to learn about nearby, directly connected devices. Cisco 300-115 pdf Discovery Protocol is enabled by default. Each device configured for Cisco Discovery Protocol advertises at least one address at which the device can receive messages and sends periodic advertisements (messages) to the well-known multicast address 01:00:0C:CC:CC:CC. Devices discover each other by listening at that address. They also listen to messages to learn when interfaces on other devices are up or go down. Advertisements contain time-to-live information, which indicates the length of time a receiving device should hold Cisco Discovery Protocol information before discarding it. Advertisements supported and configured in Cisco 300-115 software are sent, by default, every 60 seconds.

QUESTION 2
Which statement about Cisco Discovery Protocol configuration on a Cisco switch is true?
A. CDP is enabled by default and can be disabled globally with the command no cdp run.
B. CDP is disabled by default and can be enabled globally with the command cdp enable.
C. CDP is enabled by default and can be disabled globally with the command no cdp enable.
D. CDP is disabled by default and can be enabled globally with the command cdp run.
Correct Answer: A Explanation

Explanation:
CDP is enabled on your router by default, which means the Cisco 300-115 dumps IOS software will receive CDP information. CDP also is enabled on supported interfaces by default. To disable CDP on an interface, use the “no cdp enable interface” configuration command. To disable it globally, use the “no cdp run” command.

QUESTION 3
Which VTP mode is needed to configure an extended VLAN, when a switch is configured to use VTP versions 1 or 2?
A. transparent
B. client
C. server
D. Extended VLANs are only supported in version 3 and not in versions 1 or 2.
Correct Answer: D Explanation

Explanation:
VTP version 1 and version 2 300-115 support VLANs 1 to 1000 only. Extended-range VLANs are supported only in VTP version 3. If converting from VTP version 3 to VTP version 2, VLANs in the range 1006 to 4094 are removed from VTP control.

QUESTION 4
What is the size of the VLAN field inside an 802.1q frame?
A. 8-bit
B. 12-bit
C. 16-bit
D. 32-bit
Correct Answer: B Explanation

Explanation: The VLAN field is a 12-bit field specifying the VLAN to which the frame belongs. The hexadecimal values of 0x000 and 0xFFF are reserved. All other values may be used as VLAN identifiers, allowing up to 4,094 VLANs.

QUESTION 5
What is the maximum number of 300-115 vce VLANs that can be assigned to an access switchport without a voice VLAN?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 1024
Correct Answer: B Explanation

Explanation:
A standard (non-voice VLAN port) access switch port can belong to only a single VLAN. If more than one VLAN is needed, the 300-115 port should be configured as atrunk port.

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Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/switch2.html

Easily Pass Cisco 100-105 Exam With New Cisco 100-105 VCE Dumps

QUESTION 1
The benefits provided by the 100-105 dumps CIFS application-level optimizations are:
A. Remove protocol chattiness from the remote LAN
B. Remove protocol chattiness from the data center LAN
C. Increase protocol chattiness from the WAN
D. Remove protocol chattiness from the WAN
E. Encrypt important data
Correct Answer: D

100-105

QUESTION 2
What does the 100-105 Data Streamlining module in RiOS do?
A. Eliminates redundant bytes from transfers
B. Prioritizes application traffic
C. Reduces transport protocol inefficiencies
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What does the Transport Streamlining module in RiOS do? (Select 2)
A. Reduces transport protocol inefficiencies
B. Prioritizes application traffic
C. Virtually expands TCP windows
D. Reduces WAN round trips at the application layer
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
What does the 100-105 vce Application Streamlining module in RiOS do?
A. Eliminates redundant bytes from transfers
B. Prioritizes application traffic
C. Eliminates transport protocol inefficiencies
D. Reduces WAN round trips at the application layer
E. All of the above
F. None of the above
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What are the 100-105 benefits of Application Streamlining?
A. Applications run up to 100 times faster
B. Reduces application chattiness by 65-98%
C. Accelerates the most important applications, such as CIFS, MAPI, NFS, HTTP/S, Lotus Notes, and MS-SQL
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Data Streamlining brings what benefits?
A. WAN bandwidth reduction by 60-95%
B. Eliminates redundant data transfers at the byte-sequence level
C. Performs cross-application optimization
D. Provides compression
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 7
To help secure the 100-105 exam server private key on the server-side Steelhead appliance, which of the following features can be used?
A. TACACS+ authentication
B. RADIUS authentication
C. Secure Vault
D. Datastore encryption
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Assume the SSL server is configured for the default SSL port. Which port has to 100-105 pdf be specified in the in-path rules of the client-side Steelhead appliance?
A. 443
B. 445
C. 7801
D. 8080
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which of the following MAPI application-specific optimizations can be performed by Steelhead appliances?
A. Read ahead on attachments
B. Read ahead on large emails
C. Write behind on attachments
D. Write behind on large emails
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 10
When MAPI prepopulation 100-105 is enabled, what is default TCP keep-alive time used to prepopulate the Steelhead appliance with emails and attachments?
A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 72 hours
D. 96 hours
Correct Answer: D

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/100-105-icnd1.html

2017 Latest Microsoft 98-367 PDF Exam Practice Questions And Answers

This exam validates that a candidate has fundamental security knowledge and skills. It can serve as a stepping stone to the Microsoft 98-367 Certified Solutions Associate (MCSA) exams. It is recommended that candidates become familiar with the concepts and the technologies described here by taking relevant training courses.

Microsoft’s Security Fundamentals exam tests your knowledge of physical security, Internet security, operating system security, network security and software security. The Security Fundamentals exam is similar to the Microsoft 98-367 exam.

98-367

QUESTION 1
The purpose of a 98-367 digital certificate is to verify that a:
A. Public key belongs to a sender.
B. Computer is virus-free.
C. Private key belongs to a sender.
D. Digital document is complete.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
In cryptography, a public key certificate (also known as a digital certificate or identity certificate) is an
electronic document that uses a digital 98-367 dumps signature to bind a public key with an identity.

QUESTION 2
A mail system administrator scans for viruses in incoming emails to increase the speed of mail processing.
Select the 98-367 correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. Decrease the chances of a virus getting to a client machine
B. Verify that the senders of the messages are legitimate
C. Ensure that all links in the messages are trustworthy
D. No change is needed.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You are volunteering at an organization that gets a brand new web server. To make the server more secure, you should add a second administrator account.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text 98-367 vce does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. Disable unused services
B. Enable LM authentication
C. Enable NTLM authentication
D. No change is needed.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Role separation improves server security by:
A. Enforcing principle of least privilege.
B. Installing applications on separate hard disks.
C. Physically separating high security servers from other servers.
D. Placing servers on separate VLANs.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
The Windows Firewall protects computers from unauthorized network connections.
Select the correct 98-367 answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. Email viruses
B. Phishing scams
C. Unencrypted network access
D. No change is needed
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Coho Winery wants to increase their web presence and hires you to set up a new web server. Coho already has servers for 98-367 pdf their business and would like to avoid purchasing a new one.
Which server is best to use as a web server, considering the security and performance concerns?
A. SQL Server
B. File Server
C. Domain Controller
D. Application Server Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-98-367.aspx

2017 Best And Latest Cisco Practice PDF For 210-065 Exam Test

Preparation with the VCE 210-065 exam study material would increase the probability to pass the exam successfully in the very first attempt. Our Cisco 210-065 practice tests cover the entire outline for Cisco syllabus and make your knowledge fully compatible with 210-065 objectives. All core topics are covered in our latest 210-065 dumps comprehensively, and we Provide 210-065 free update in a year.

210-065

QUESTION 1
A technician has installed and powered on a Cisco TelePresence MCU 5320 and is connected via the console port. The 210-065 technician needs to determine the IP settings that were automatically assigned via DHCP. Which command should be entered?
A. xstatus
B. show network eth0
C. status
D. help static
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
The firmware for the primary codec of a Cisco TelePresence System 3010 is being upgraded. Which codec CLI command 210-065 could be used to check on the progress of the update?
A. utils upgrade display
B. utils system version
C. show upgrade detail
D. show system upgrade
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A Cisco 210-065 vce TelePresence VCS displays this alarm: “Root password is set to default.” How can this security warning be addressed?
A. Use the Cisco TelePresence VCS web user interface, choose Administration > User Settings, and change the root password.
B. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Administrator and issue the command xconfig root set passwd.
C. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Root, issue the command set password, and enter the new password when prompted.
D. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Root, issue the command passwd, and enter the new password when prompted.
E. Use the Cisco TelePresence VCS web user interface, choose Administration > System Settings, and change the root password.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A large company wants to procure video conference devices that allow multipoint conferences from C-Series and immersive endpoints that are registered to a Cisco VCS and Cisco 210-065 pdf Unified Communications Manager. Which two components meet the requirements of this company? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Switch registered to Cisco VCS
B. Cisco C-Series endpoint with a multisite option key registered to Cisco VCS
C. Cisco TelePresence Server registered to Cisco VCS
D. Cisco C-Series endpoint with a multisite option key registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager
E. Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Switch trunked to Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 5
A video conference user that is connected via a Cisco 210-065 TelePresence Codec C40 to a conference that is hosted on a Cisco 210-065 TelePresence MCU 5300 would like to switch the local layout view. Which two options describe how to switch the local layout view without affecting the view of remote users? (Choose two.)
A. Use the Administrator settings from the local touch control.
B. Use the Participant settings from the MCU 5300 web interface.
C. Use the Call settings from the remote control.
D. Use the Call Control settings from the codec web interface.
E. Use the Conference settings from the codec web interface.
Correct Answer: BD

Reference: http://www.passitdump.com/210-065.html

Learn more: https://www.examfast.com/the-best-microsoft-070-414-cert/

The Best Microsoft 070-414 Cert For MCSE Exam, 100% Pass Guarantee

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. The percentages indicate the relative weight 70-414 of each major topic area on the exam. The higher the percentage, the more questions you are likely to see on that content area on the exam. View video tutorials about the variety of question types on Microsoft exams.

This exam is part two of a series of two exams that test the skills and knowledge necessary to design, implement, and maintain 070-414 vce a Windows Server 2012 infrastructure in an enterprise scaled, highly virtualized environment.

070-414

Passing this exam validates a candidate’s ability to the plan, configure, and manage the Windows Server 2012 services, such as identity and access, high availability, and the server infrastructure. Passing this 070-414 exam along with the other exam confirms that a candidate has the skills and knowledge necessary for designing, deploying, and maintaining services and infrastructure in a Windows Server 2012 environment.

Your network contains two Active Directory forests named 070-414. It contains one domain. It contains a child domain named 070-414. It has a one-way forest trust to 070-414 dumps. Selective authentication is enabled on the forest trust.

Reference: https://www.examfast.com/the-best-microsoft-070-414/

Several user accounts are migrated from 070-414. Users report that after the migration, they fail to access resources in pdf. The users successfully accessed the resources in 070-414 before the accounts were migrated.
You need to ensure that the migrated users can access the resources in Microsoft 070-414 pdf.

What should you do?
A. Replace the existing forest trust with an external trust.
B. Run netdom and specify the /quarantine attribute.
C. Disable SID filtering on the existing forest trust.
D. Disable selective authentication on the existing forest trust.
Correct Answer: C Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Security Considerations for Trusts Need to gain access to the resources in 70-414.
Disabling SID Filter Quarantining on External Trusts Although it reduces the security of your forest (and is therefore not recommended), you can dis- able SID filter quarantining for an external trust by using the 070-414 tool. You should con- sider disabling SID filter quarantining only in the following situations:
Users have been migrated to the trusted domain with their SID histories preserved, and you want to grant
them access to resources in the trusting domain based on the SID history attribute.
Etc.

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